CT Scan MCQs Part 1
Explore the world of CT scans MCQs part 1. Test your knowledge and enhance your understanding of CT imaging technology through a curated set of questions, perfect for students, professionals, and enthusiasts in the medical field. Master the essentials of CT scans with our engaging quiz series.
1. An average range for activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) is:
A. 10-12 seconds
B. 17-21 seconds
C. 25-35 seconds
D. 43-55 seconds
ANS:- C
2. Which of the following is the correct angle of insertion for placing a butterfly needle into a vein for intravenous administration of a contrast agent?
A. 5 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 60 degrees
ANS:- B
3. A total volume of 125 mL of an iodinated contrast agent is administered intravenously via automatic injector in 50 seconds. The flow rate for this injection is:
A. 0.75 mL/sec
B. 1.25 mL/sec
C. 1.75 mL/sec
D. 2.5 mL/sec
ANS:- D
4. The acronym CTDI is used to describe which of the following?
A. A specialized CT imaging technique used to measure bone mineral density
B. A quality control test that measures the accuracy of the laser lighting system
C. The radiation dose to the patient during a CT scan
D. A high-speed CT scanner used for cardiac imaging
ANS:- C
5. While one is obtaining a thorough history from a patient prior to the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast material, which of the following topics should be included?
1. Any prior allergic reactions to contrast media
2. Presence of HIV or hepatitis infection
3. History of asthma
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
ANS:- C
6. Which of the following factors may affect a patient’s calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
1. Age
2. Sex
3. Race
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
ANS:- D
7. Which of the following intravenous contrast agent administration methods provides the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration?
A. Drip infusion
B. Bolus technique
C. Biphasic technique
D. CT portography
ANS:- B
8. A patient in shock may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
1. Tachycardia
2. Rapid, shallow breathing
3. Cyanosis
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
ANS:- D
9. The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified as which of the following?
A. Anticholinergic
B. Bronchodilator
C. Antihistamine
D. Corticosteroid
ANS:- D
10. Which of the following technical factors has a direct effect on patient dose?
A. Matrix size
B. Algorithm
C. mAs
D. Window level
ANS:- C
11. Which of the following is a non-ionic contrast material?
A. Iodamide
B. Iothalamate
C. Iohexol
D. Diatrizoate
ANS:- C
12. Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient who is having difficulty breathing?
A. Dyslexia
B. Dyspnea
C. Dysphagia
D. Dysphasia
ANS:- B
13. Which of the following devices is used to measure the patient dose from a CT examination?
A. Geiger counter
B. Proportional counter
C. Ionization chamber
D. Film badge
ANS:- C
14. Which of the following describes the situation in which an assumption is made that an unconscious or otherwise physically unable patient consents to medical treatment?
A. Informed consent
B. witnessed consent
C. Patient proxy
D. Implied consent
ANS:- D
15. Complete cardiac diastole corresponds to which portion of the cardiac cycle on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?
A. P wave
B. QRS complex
C. Alpha wave
D. T wave
ANS:- D
16. During CT arthrography, iodinated contrast media is injected directly into the:
A. Joint space
B. Intrathecal space
C. Subarachnoid space
D. Venous bloodstream
ANS:- A
17. Which of the following is considered one of the isoosmolar contrast media (IOCM)?
A. Iodixanol
B. Iopamidol
C. Iohexol
D. Ioversol
ANS:- A
18. A common site for the IV administration of iodinated contrast media is the anterior recess of the elbow, otherwise known as the:
A. Brachial fossa
B. Olecranon fossa
C. Retro-ulnar space
D. Antecubital space
ANS:- D
19. The potentially serious decline in renal function following the IV administration of contrast material is called:
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Bronchospasm
C. Contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
D. Urticaria
ANS:- C
20. The quantity of absorbed radiation dose based on the radiosensitivity of a particular tissue type is called:
A. Stochastic dose
B. Kerma
C. Effective dose
D. CTDI
ANS:- C
21. Advantages of a saline flush immediately following the IV administration of iodinated contrast material include:
1. Reduction in required contrast agent dose
2. Reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
3. Reduction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
ANS:- D
22. Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?
A. Sublingual nitroglycerine
B. A b-adrenergic receptor blocking agent (b-blocker)
C. Atropine
D. Albuterol
ANS:- A
23. A normal range for diastolic blood pressure in an adult is:
A. 40-60 mm Hg
B. 60-90 mm Hg
C. 80-120 mm Hg
D. 95-140 mm Hg
ANS:- B
24. Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?
A. Sublingual
B. Intramuscular
C. Transdermal
D. Oral
ANS:- B
25. Which of the following methods may be employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT?
1. Reduce mA
2. Limit phases of acquisition
3. Increase pitch
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
ANS:- D
26. Radiation exposure and its potentially harmful effects have a relationship that is termed ________ in nature.
A. Stochastic
B. Nonstochastic
C. Negligible
D. Somatic
ANS:- A
27. Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?
A. Acid-fast bacillus isolation
B. Contact isolation
C. Enteric precautions
D. Drainage-secretion precautions
ANS:- C
28. Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?
A. Iohexol
B. Iothalamate meglumine
C. Iopamidol
D. Ioversol
ANS:- B
29. The radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed:
A. CTDIw
B. CTDI100
C. CTDIvol
D. MSAD
ANS:- A
30. Direct contraindications to the administration of iodinated contrast material include:
1. Prior life-threatening reaction to iodinated contrast material
2. Multiple myeloma
3. Diabetes
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
ANS:- A
31. Which of the following units is used to express the total patient dose from helically acquired CT examination?
A. Roentgens (R)
B. Curies (Ci)
C. R-cm (roentgens per centimeter)
D. mGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)
ANS:- D
32. Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include:
1. Pre-contrast sequence of the brain
2. CTA of the brain and carotids
3. CT perfusion (CTP) of the brain
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
ANS:- D
33. Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
A. Left pulmonary artery
B. Ascending aorta
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Descending aorta
ANS:- A
34. Which number on the figure corresponds to the superior vena cava?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANS:- C
35. The abnormal density located in the posterior portion of the left lung field on the figure has an average attenuation value of þ5.0 Hounsfield units. This density most likely represents:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Hemothorax
C. Ttelectasis
D. Pleural effusion
ANS:- D
36. Simple cysts of the kidney have average attenuation values in the range of:
A. 40 to 0 Hounsfield units
B. 0 to þ20 Hounsfield units
C. þ30 to þ50 Hounsfield units
D. above þ60 Hounsfield units
ANS:- B
37. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approximately:
A. 15-20 seconds
B. 25-35 seconds
C. 60-70 seconds
D. 120-180 seconds
ANS:- B
38. Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
A. Left internal jugular vein
B. Left external carotid artery
C. Left internal carotid artery
D. Left external jugular vein
ANS:- C
39. Number 5 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
A. Right internal jugular vein
B. Right external carotid artery
C. Right internal carotid artery
D. Right external jugular vein
ANS:- A
41. The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of:
A. T10
B. T12
C. L2
D. L4
ANS:- D
42. On an ECG of the complete cardiac cycle, at which portion of the R-R interval is the heart muscle in diastole?
A. 10%-20%
B. 35%-50%
C. 55%-75%
D. 85%-95%
ANS:- C
43. The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disc is called the:
A. Aeration effect
B. Vacuum phenomenon
C. Oxygen saturation point
D. Carbonization sign
ANS:- B
44. During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data:
1. Continuously as the patient travels through the gantry
2. One section at a time
3. In the form of a complete volumetric data set
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
ANS:- C
45. Which of the following CT studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?
A. CT angiogram for circle of Willis
B. Coronal scan to rule out (R/O) pituitary tumor
C. CT of brain to R/O subdural hematoma
D. CT of brain to R/O metastatic disease
ANS:- C
46. Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?
A. Early arterial
B. Corticomedullary
C. Nephrographic
D. Excretory
ANS:- D
48. Which of the following most likely describes the patient position during the formation of the image in the figure?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Left lateral decubitus
D. Right lateral decubitus
ANS:- D
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